>
> A colleague, who now faces a driving ban, claims that he has seen a
> solicitor who has agreed to take on an appeal against his latest (one
> too many) fixed speed camera notification.
>
> He claims that a more recently sighted traffic sign obscured the speed
> camera warning sign.
>
> So, are the highways authority required to provide adequate visible
> warnings in this way?
>
> Also, if so, what constitutes an adequately visible warning as surely
> it=3Fs quite possible, in this situation, that the camera warning sign
> would have been adequately visible had he not been breaking the speed
> limit in the first place?
>