Author: SteveSteve
Date: Dec 20, 2006 02:29
Ewan Scott wrote:
> On 19 Dec 2006 14:04:44 -0800, "Steve" yahoo.co.uk>
> Plus, he has loss of
> income because he cannot perform his private practice for the same
> period. Should he be denied compensation?
> Or, if he is due compensation, what about the warehouse operative on a
> minimum wage who suffers the same injury? Do we decline him the right
> to compensation because his work is les valued?
>
> Or, a houewife with no income, who suffers no loss of income, but a
> mere inconvenience? Do we deny her the right to compensaition?
Not sure why I need to repeat this, I have said it more than once.
If someone suffers financial loss (which includes being unable to
work), then they should be entitled to compensation.
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