question about sampling
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question about sampling         


Author: Anja
Date: May 3, 2008 05:16

Hello everyone,

I read somewhere that if we want to resolve two frequencies using the
fourier transform, one signal must have evolved an extra 2 pi relative
to the other. I am trying to picturise this, but am having trouble
understanding this relationship. Can someone explain why this is so?

Cheers,
Anja
2 Comments
Re: question about sampling         


Author: rickman
Date: May 3, 2008 06:08

On May 3, 8:16 am, Anja googlemail.com> wrote:
> Hello everyone,
>
> I read somewhere that if we want to resolve two frequencies using the
> fourier transform, one signal must have evolved an extra 2 pi relative
> to the other. I am trying to picturise this, but am having trouble
> understanding this relationship. Can someone explain why this is so?
>
> Cheers,
> Anja

I think what you are describing is the frequency resolution of a
sampled waveform. It actually has nothing to do with the Fourier
transform. It is a fundamental property of a sampled signal of finite...
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Re: question about sampling         


Author: Ron N.
Date: May 3, 2008 11:04

On May 3, 5:16 am, Anja googlemail.com> wrote:
> I read somewhere that if we want to resolve two frequencies using the
> fourier transform, one signal must have evolved an extra 2 pi relative
> to the other. I am trying to picturise this, but am having trouble
> understanding this relationship. Can someone explain why this is so?

If you transform a finite length signal into the frequency
domain, two sinusoids which are periodic but of different
frequencies will be orthogonal and thus completely separable
in the frequency domain. To be both periodic and different
requires a different integer multiple of full cycles, or of
2 pi of phase, within the window.

You can note that the two periodic sinusoids are orthogonal
by seeing that if you multiply them together, the positive
and negative contributions cancel each other out.

IMHO. YMMV.
--
rhn A.T nicholson d.0.t C-o-M
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