Re: Is logic world dependent or not?
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Re: Is logic world dependent or not?         

Group: alt.philosophy · Group Profile
Author: Immortalist
Date: Sep 5, 2008 23:09

On Sep 5, 5:31 pm, John Jones aol.com> wrote:
> To answer that question in the title, I assume in the first instance
> that logic is a posteriori or world-dependent. I begin by arguing for a
> particular distinction between logic and informal description:
>
> A (formal) logic always reflects the worldy objects and behaviours that
> our informal descriptions have traditionally presented to us. That is,
> logic is a posteriori - world-dependent. A distinction here is that in a
> formal logic the multiplicity of contexts found in informal descriptions
> is reduced to a general case. This allows logic to be represented
> through syntax alone.
>

This debate always seems like the first cause argument and
foundationalists seem to resort to it alot. But priori simply means,
"with no reference to empirical data from the senses. Who cares how
the memories of sense data got in the head, apriori means simply logic
in the head alone by adding concepts to memories with no reference to
incoming signals for justification.
> However, neither a formal symbolism nor the employment of general cases
> can bring us the hoped-for elimination of informal vaguary that a formal
> logic has always seemed to promise us. Indeed, the claim of logic
> 'clearing up' informal description fails to recognise the distinctions
> between formal logic and informal descriptions that I argue for here.
>
> For example, if entailment is to be employed in an a posteriori logic
> then we must recognise entailment as an informal description sourced
> from worldy events. An applied logic then reduces the contexts of
> entailment to a general case, and presents it formally. I argued that in
> the case of modus ponens such a presentation was not accurately given to
> us by logic - this in spite of a formal representation and/or the
> simplification of contexts to a general case. We had to return to the
> informal description to inform logic correctly.
>
> Hence (if the above example is sufficient for my purposes) without
> either formal description or generalisation available as guides on our
> journey toward clarity, we might yet decide to follow logic through
> informal pathways and fall by the wayside because of it; with some
> exceptions, of course: where logic facilitates bulk operations, or,
> where a symbolism can facilitate 'speed reading'...
>
> But if it is a 'conceptual' clarity that we seek to promote in logic
> then this cannot be guaranteed by either formalism or by generalising
> particular cases; we are left to wonder precisely how such clarity could
> be achieved. But then such a means, if it existed, would make logic a
> priori and not a posteriori. So until such a means is given a name and a
> description, let us leave it the way I started out and say that logic is
> a posteriori - world dependent.
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