Author: ABCABC Date: Jun 24, 2007 12:15
someone2 wrote:
> On 24 Jun, 19:54, ABC inmail24.com> wrote:
>> someone2 wrote:
>>> On 24 Jun, 19:35, ABC inmail24.com> wrote:
>>>> someone2 wrote:
>>>>> I was wondering which of you can understand the following reasoning,
>>>>> and perhaps which of you object to it:
>>
>>>>> M refers to the physical entity in question.
>>>>> B(M) refers to the behaviour of M in question.
>>>>> P refers to the a property in question.
>>
>>>>> Where M is the same in (1) and (2), B(M) is the same in (1) and (2),
>>>>> and P is the same in (1) and (2).
>>
>>>>> 1) B(M) is explained by the laws of physics without requiring
>>>>> knowledge of whether it has P or not.
>>
>>>>> 2) Presence of P or lack of, does not influence/affect B(M), else the
>>>>> explanation of behaviour could not be the same with or without P. ...
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