Are Locke's "degrees of assent" one method for deciding between two theories which both have some evidence?
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Are Locke's "degrees of assent" one method for deciding between two theories which both have some evidence?         


Author: Immortalist
Date: Jan 31, 2008 15:50

In ECHU IV.15.2, John Locke introduces the notion of 'degrees of
assent'. On the basis of this notion he formulates his claim in IV.
16.1 that the degrees of assent should be regulated by the degrees of
probability. This is a fairly common view in modern philosophy; you
can call to mind, for instance, Hume's famous saying, "The wise man
proportions his belief to the evidence," which Hume means quite
literally: the degree of belief should match the degree of evidence.

http://branemrys.blogspot.com/2004/12/are-there-degrees-of-assent.html

So, apart from the few important things that we can know for certain,
e.g. the existence of ourselves and God, the nature of mathematics and
morality broadly construed, for the most part we must lead our lives
without knowledge. What then is probability? Locke writes:

As Demonstration is the shewing of the agreement or disagreement of
two Ideas, by the intervention of one or more Proofs, which have a
constant, immutable, and visible connexion one with another: so
Probability...
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1 Comment
Re: Are Locke's "degrees of assent" one method for deciding between two theories which both have some evidence?         


Author: ZerkonX
Date: Feb 1, 2008 05:17

On Thu, 31 Jan 2008 15:50:03 -0800, Immortalist wrote:
> The writers and wranglers in religion fill it with niceties, and dress
> it up with notions, which they make necessary and fundamental parts of
> it; as if there were no way into the church, but through the academy or
> lyceum. The greatest part of mankind have not leisure for learning and
> logic, and superfine distinctions of the schools.
>
> What people need is not intellectual insight or theological dogma, but
> practical guidance....

"Practical guidance" without the need for reason or insight seems to
transform the term into some NewSpeak for oligarchy.

I also think that morality and 'religion' can be encompassed by reason.
The question is can they be encompassed by church?
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